My wife owned a home before we met. We married, and she moved in with me. We’ve now had her old house rented for approximately 2.5 years. We’d like to sell in late spring. Unfortunately, once spring comes, we would have had it rented for over 3 years, meaning that she wouldn’t satisfy the 2 year of 5 year rule. How strict is this? Let’s say she lived there for 20 months out of the last 60 instead of the 24 months required, is that close enough? Does it matter? I know there are partial exclusions we could look into for an “unforeseeable event”, however, the partial exclusion vs a full exclusion is a big difference! As far as selling it sooner, I know that would make the most sense, but due to a lease and relationship with the tenants, it is not on our radar.