My wife and I own a condo in Japan. It’s not used as a rental or AirBNB but rather we live in it when we visit Japan.
We are preparing to buy our first home in California and that will be our primary residence.
The first-time homebuyer notes for our state (California) don’t touch on this, but say:
To know for sure, you should understand that a first-time homebuyer is defined as someone who has not owned and occupied their own home in the last three years. That means if you’ve never owned a home, you’re a first-time homebuyer. It also means that if you owned your home three or more years ago, but sold it, you are right back to being a first-time homebuyer again, and you can take advantage of all of the benefits of CalHFA’s first-time homebuyer programs.
I take it that, since it doesn’t say in the US only that means we’re disqualified?